TOEFL SIMULATION TEST 1 - Global English

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Instruction
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Identity
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Section 1
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Section 2
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Section 3

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BACA INSTRUKSI DI BAWAH INI DENGAN CERMAT!
Soal terdiri dari:

Listening = 28 menit

Structure=25 menit

Reading=55 menit

* Untuk kelancaran test, direkomendasikan menggunakan browser Google Chrome.

PREPARATION

For the best result, you should use a headphone or earphone to avoid background noises and distractions

AUDIO

When you're ready, play the audio by clicking the Play button

This audio could not be listened/repeated twice, please listen carefully to complete your answer.

IN THE TEST

On bottom of each section, there is a count-down timer, if you have already reached the listening section, please click the Play Audio button as soon as possible, because the count-down timer will run automatically when the test has started.

On bottom of each section, there is a check box for you to confirm the next section, you can quickly click the check box and ensure that you think all of answers above have been completed. Remember that you cannot go back to the previous section after clicking “SELANJUTNYA”. Review your answer before submitting to avoid unfortunate mistakes.

AFTER THE TEST

You will get the announcement about the test result after the listening section, please review or capture the test result before clicking “KLIK UNTUK KIRIM”.

Don’t forget to click the button “KLIK UNTUK KIRIM”, so your data will be saved in our server.

NOTE: These instructions are for using within this website only. The real exam instructions are different, seek help from your learning center/tutor to learn more.

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Audio

Section I: Listening Comprehension

Section 1, in this first section of the English Proficiency Test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. While you are listening, the information will be presented on your computer screen. Click on the answers of all questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test.

Part A

DIRECTIONS: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers provided on your screen and click on the best answer.

(A) The woman should check the bus schedule.

(B) The buses stop running on Fridays.

(D) The schedule on the corner is out-of-date.

(A) Make some tea for the man.

(B) Take the man to see a doctor.

(D) Look up a recipe for chicken soup.

(A) She finished packing a half hour ago.

(B) The man should get ready quickly.

(D) The man doesn’t like to travel.

(A) She's too busy to have dinner with the man this month.

(B) She doesn't know her new schedule yet.

(D) She doesn‘t want to cook dinner.

(A) He returned home without any seeds.

(B) He brought home some vegetables.

(D) He bought the mug seeds.

(A) He’s already completed the program.

(B) He doesn't know the nurse’s phone number.

(D) He'd like to get additional information.

(A) Get the woman another canon of eggs.

(B) Give the woman a refund.

(D) Tell the woman where she can find the eggs.

(A) Go to bed earlier.

(B) Wake up earlier in the morning.

(D) Use an alarm clock to wake up

(A) Give her a new suitcase.

(B) Give her store credit.

(D) Give her a refund.

10.

(A) She doesn’t agree with the man

(B) She wants the man‘s opinion.

(D) The man shouldn't react so strongly.

11.

(A) He needs some change.

(B) He seldom counts his money.

(D) He owes the women fifty dollars.

12.

(A) He'll take work with him on his vacation.

(B) Work stacked up while he was on vacation.

(D) He's already made his vacation plans.

13.

(A) He's already been picked up.

(B) He got delayed at the airport.

(D) He'll be easy to recognize.

14.

(A) He drank too much coffee.

(B) He thinks the stain can be removed.

(D) He‘s worried about his shirt.

15.

(A) He still has a lot to do.

(B) He has to wait a while before he buys a house.

(D) He appreciates the woman's help.

16.

(A) She's studying for a physics exam.

(B) She's planning her class schedule.

(D) She plans to graduate this year.

17.

(A) She doesn't like bowling.

(B) She probably won’t be able to go.

(D) She’ll help Dennis with his project this weekend.

18.

(A) He'd like to ride with the woman.

(B) He'll try to get a ride with someone else.

(D) His car has already been fixed.

19.

(A) The museum might be closed before they arrive.

(B) They should find a different way to get to the museum.

20.

(A) Ten minutes is a long time for spaghetti to cook.

(B) She'll tell the man when the time is up.

(D) The man should start the spaghetti in ten minutes.

21.

(A) The man's paper was due last week.

(B) The man has a lot of work to do.

(D) The library is closed on weekends.

(A) She’d rather not go to the late show.

(B) She’ll miss the rehearsal because she is sick.

(D) She wishes the man had fewer rehearsals.

23.

(A) The gym is always very crowded.

(B) The gym offers many different activities.

(D) The number of people in the gym varies.

24.

A) Gloria hasn't been with the company very long.

(B) Gloria got her promotion after only a year.

(D) Gloria earned her promotion.

25.

(A) Most people don't like it.

(B) Some people aren't enthusiastic about it.

(D) She‘ll take it next semester.

26.

A) Anyone would have difficulty without directions.

(B) It was surprising that the store provided a manual.

(D) Mike couldn't understand the instructions.

27.

(A) He knows how to use the ' camera.

(B) He's a professional photographer.

(D) He has used the woman’s camera before.

28.

(A) Nancy wouldn't send a thank-you note.

(B) Nancy hadn't received the scarf.

(D) Nancy doesn‘t wear scarves.

(A) The car is dependable.

(B) The car isn’t very old.

(D) He paid too much for the car.

30.

(A) She should have bought a new book bag earlier.

(B) She wanted to buy the new statistics book.

(D) She lost her new book beg.

*Apakah kamu yakin ke sesi selanjutnya

Ya saya yakin

Section II: Structure and Written Expression
Part A. STRUCTURE
Time 25 minutes:
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. .............of musical instrument, each making its own distinctive sound.

(A) Thousands

(B) Are thousands

(D) There are thousand

2. Photography was first ........ to the world in 1839.

(A) to introduce

(B) introduced

(D) introducing

3. After the development of money in the seventh century B.C., people could sell goods without .......... to exchange them directly for other goods.

(A) they had

(B) have

(D) to have had

4. ....... portrayed the decadence of the South in many of his novels, using for their background the environment of his youth in Mississippi.

(A) What William Faulkner

(B) William Faulkner

(D) William Faulkner, who

5. In I986 Mount Pagan, a volcanic island in the western Pacific Ocean, became part of a United States commonwealth ..................... the Northern Mariana Islands and Guam.

(A) and including

(B) includes

(D) that includes

6. When disturbed, copperhead snakes vibrate their tails rapidly ............... soundlessly.

(A) but

(B) either

(D) whereas

7. Taboos concerning foods ............... are common in all puts of the world.

(A) are not to be eaten

(B) not to be eaten that

8. The Onondaga Indians were one of the original five nations of the Iroquois Confederacy ................... in what is now New York State.

(A) that living

(B) as living

(D) living

9. At very high temperatures, atoms can be broken apart and put back together, or fused, .................... new types of atoms.

(A) and forming

(B) and the form of

(D) the formation

10. ................ to fly backwards and upside down and to have it very unusual.

(A) Hummingbirds are able

(B) The ability of the hummingbird

(D) The hummingbird has the ability

11. Fluorite occurs in various colors in crystal. Granular, and massive forms, and its crystals ................

(A) sometimes fluorescence exhibit

(B) fluorescence exhibit sometimes

(D) fluorescence sometimes exhibit

12. Occupying both banks of the North Saskatchewan River in the center of the province of Alberta, Edmonton is ...............

(A) Where the sixth largest Canadian city

(B) Canada has the sixth largest city

(D) Canada's sixth largest city

13. The Smithsonian Institution has named Beatrice Wood ............. Esteemed American Artist.

(A) to whom an

(B) because an

(D) an

14. ............... when infrequent thunderstorm saturate materials on the surface of sparsely vegetated slopes.

(A) Fat desert mudflows to occur

(B) The occurrence of desert mudflows

(D) Desert mudflows. which occur

15. The ancient O'odham people of Arizona learned ............... all available water, conserving the overflow from summer storms in reservoirs.

(A) used

(B) usable

(D) useful

Part B. WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A., B, C, and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be grammatically correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16. Trees provide many benefit to the environment, including cooling the air, absorbing pollutants, and improving water quality.

(A) Provide

(B) Benefit

(D) Improving

17. The theory of continental drift suggests continents have moved in relation the poles.

(A) Theory

(B) Suggests

(D) Relation the

18. Trigonometry is the study of triangles, angles, and the relationship among they.

(A) Is

(B) Study

(D) They

19. The atmosphere is warmed less than by the sun‘s rays passing through it than by the Sun‘s heat reflecting from the Earth’s surface.

(A) Less than

(B) Passing

(D) Surface

20. The crust of the Earth is spherical shell of rock that consist of a number of rigid plates.

(A) The crust

(B) Consist

(D) Plates

21. While working as a machinist and engineer, Henry Fond built his first automobile in his time spare.

(A) As

(B) And

(D) Time spare

22. Today's locomotives are generally powered electrically, either taking power from overhead wires and generating their own electricity with massive diesel engines.

(A) Generally

(B) And

(D) Massive

23. Differing of the parent plants genetically, hybrids occur in nature, and they serve the important function of increasing genetic variety.

(A) Of

(B) Occur

(D) Increasing

24. Exercise physical for children has been promoted in the United States and Canada since the mid-nineteenth century.

(A) Exercise physical

(B) Been promoted

(D) Since

25. When the study of historic is merely a list of events that are isolated from one another, there is little connection to present.

(A) Historic

(B) List

(D) There is

26. Josephine Baker displayed a musician’s sense of timing, a dancer’s instinctive for movement, and a comedian’s ability to deliver the punchline.

(A) Displayed

(B) Timing

(D) To deliver

27. The continuing grow of cities, an increase in motor vehicle use, and greater industrial activity have combined to produce serious air pollution in many areas.

(A) Grow

(B) Greater

(D) Serious

28. In 1980 approximately one out of every seven United States worker was employed in work related to the automobile industry.

(A) Approximately

(B) Worker

(D) Industry

29. An entire salt-marsh complex of creek, marshes, river mouths, and barrier islands can be seen as a single community linking by the tides.

(A) An entire

(B) Be seen

(D) Linking

30. Despite their great length, the Appalachian Mountain range is relatively narrow, rarely exceeding a width of 100 miles.

(A) Their

(B) Length

(D) exceeding

31. A great deal of Edith Wharton's the most representative fiction took its stimulus from her frustrated sense of dislocation.

(A) A great

(B) The most

(D) Frustrated

32. Arkansas's early inhabitants included bluff-dwelling people who farming and hunting culture flourished about A.D. 500.

(A) Early

(B) Included

(D) About

33. The civil rights and liberties of United States citizen are embodied in the Bill of Rights, the first ten amendments to the Constitution.

(A) The

(B) Citizen

(D) First ten

34. Although each individual is unique, people do, of course, resemble one another in such as characteristics as physique, temperament, and susceptibility to disease.

(A) Each individual

(B) Resemble

(D) To disease

35. Leaching is the process of removing a soluble component from the mixture of soluble and insoluble solids by continuous washing the mixture with liquid solvent.

(A) Removing

(B) Mixture

(D) With

36. Most of Earth’s surface has been mapped, but in many seas vast network of caves, largely unexplored, lie beneath the ground.

(A) Most of

(B) But

(D) Largely unexplored

37. During a person inhales, the muscles of the diaphragm contract, helping to pull air into the lungs.

(A) During

(B) Person

(D) The lungs

38. Although the United States was beginning a vast program of building railroads, canals, and highways in early 1800s, there were few technical training centers.

(A) Was beginning

(B) Program of

(D) In early

39. Within any logical system there are undecidable propositions, that is, meaningful statements that can neither be proved not disproved by the rules of the system.

(A) Any

(B) There are

(D) Not

40. Columbia sheep were originally developed for range conditions in the western United States, but they are well suiting to farm pastures as well.

(A) Originally

(B) Western

(D) Suiting

Passage 1

1. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence?

(A). The transportation of the moai is both remarkable and mysterious but not as impressive as the actual creation of the statutes.

(B) The moai were carved with stone hand chisels, which is an impressive accomplishment, but it is still unknown whether the people actually transported them.

(D) The transportation of the moai is remarkable, mysterious, and as impressive as their creation with simple hand tools.

2. In paragraph 2, what does the author say about past theories of how the moai were transported from quarries to their resting places?

(A) The theorist claimed that the use of natural resources for transporting moai and devastating effects on the land and society.

(B) The theories relied on evidence of log roadways that remained long after the Rapa Nui people had disappeared.

(C) The theories were supported by oral accounts of the use of wood by the Rupa Nui peoples at the time the moai were constructed and transported.

(D) The theories were based on inaccurate estimates of the amount of wood required to transport moai over long distances.

3. The word ‘they’ in line 21 refers to ...

(A) Proponents

(B) The people

(D) Statues

4. Why does the author mention “sophisticated computer models” developed by Jo Anne Van Tilburg in line 25?

(A) To emphasize the difficulties of theorizing about the activities of people in the remote past.

(B) To demonstrate that Van Tilburg’s hypothesis appeared to be supported by evidence.

(D) To show how archeology can apply modern tools to ancient mysteries.

Examine the four █ in the selection below and indicate at which block the following sentence could be inserted into the passage:

Her data appeared to demonstrate that an average-sized moai could be moved approximately 10 kilometers in 4.7 days with a team of 70 people.

One proponent of this idea of rolling the statues in a prone position is Jo Anne Van Tilburg, of UCLA. █ [A] Van Tilburg created sophisticated computer models that took into account available materials, routes, rock, and manpower, even factoring in how much the workers would have to have eaten. Her models supported the idea that rolling the statues was the most efficient method. █ [B] As further evidence, Van Tilburg oversaw the movement of a moai replica by the method she had proposed. █ [C] They were successful, but evidence that it was possible is not necessarily evidence that it actually happened. █ [D] .

(A) [A]

(B) [B]

(D) [D]

6. In paragraph 3, what does the author NOT suggest about Jo Anne Van Tilburg’s hypothesis concerning the method of transporting the moai?

(A) The use of computer modelling provides evidence that rolling statues on logs would have been a very efficient method of transportation.

(B) It was supported by successful attempts at replicating how the Rapa Nui people may have rolled the statues on logs.

(D) With all the variables taken into account, there still wasn’t enough to provide reasonable justification for the log-rolling method.

7. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about the statues found at their eventual resting places?

(A) They showed signs of having been tipped over on their sides at some point in transit.

(B) The people intended for them to be located elsewhere but were constrained by their transportation methods.

(C) Many were, in fact, created where they were installed rather than at the quarries that were originally assumed to be the place to create.

(D) They did not have curved front edges.

8. The word 'abandoned' in line 51 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Damaged

(B) Tipped

(D) Altered

9. Which of the following methods of transportation does the author say is supported by the most compelling evidence?

(A) The rolling of moai in an upright position on logs.

(B) The shuffling of moai with ropes tied to the head and base.

(D) The rocking of moai with ropes tied to the head.

Passage 2

10. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.

(B) The computer is especially lucrative for women today.

(D) Women today are opening more businesses of their own.

11. The word "excluded" in line 10 is closest in meaning to …

(A) not permitted in

(B) often invited to

(D) charged admission to

12. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT ...

(A) Women were required to stay at home with their families

(B) Women lacked ability to work in business

(D) Women were not trained in business

13. In line 12, "that" refers to ...

(A) A woman becomes chairman of the board

(B) Women working hard

(D) Women believing that business is a place for them

14. According to the passage. Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s ...

(A) were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management

(B) were still more interested in education than business opportunities

(D) were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business

15. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the third paragraph in order to ...

(A) Show the frugality of women in business

(B) Show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig

(D) Suggest that the company needed to expand

16. In line 15, the word "this" refers to ...

(A) Women becoming entrepreneurs

(B) Women buying cosmetics and clothing

(D) Women staying at home

17. The expression "keep tabs on" in line 18 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Recognize the appearance of

(B) Keep records of

(D) Pay the salaries of

18. The word "hurdles" in line 25 can be best replaced by ...

(A) Fences

(B) Obstacles

(D) Small groups

19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small because ...

(A) Women prefer a small intimate setting

(B) Women can't deal with money

(D) Many women fail at large businesses

20. The author's attitude about the future of women in business is ...

(A) Skeptical

(B) Optimistic

(D) Negative

Passage 3

21. What is the topic of this passage?

(A) Desert plants

(B) Life underground

(D) Man's life in the desert

22. The word "greater" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Stronger

(B) Larger

(D) Heavier

23. The phrase "those forms" in line 6 refers to all of the following except …

(A) water-loving animals

(B) The bobcat

(D) Many large animals

24. "Desiccating" in line 7 means …

(A) Drying

(B) Humidifying

(D) Life threatening

25. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT ...

(A) Animals sleep during the day

(B) Animals dig homes underground

(D) Animals are watchful and quiet

26. The word "emaciated" in line 11 is closest in meaning to …

(A) Wild

(B) Cunning

(D) Unhealthy

27. The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they …

(A) are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

(B) are less healthy than animals who live in different places

(D) live in an accommodating environment

28. The word "subterranean" in line 20 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Underground

(B) Safe

(D) Harsh

29. The word "they" in line 22 refers to ...

(A) Kangaroo rats

(B) the desert population

(D) the burrows of desert animals

30. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

(A) Water is the basis of life.

(B) All living things adjust to their environments.

(D) Healthy animals live longer lives.

Passage 4

31. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved.

(B) The United States wanted more land than it needed.

(D) The United States ended up by sharing Oregon with Canada.

32. The word "intemperate" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Untimely

(B) Initial

(D) Uninformed

33. As used in line 4, the word "fixed" is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Repaired

(B) Adjusted

(D) Established

34. In line 14 the word "remote" is closest in meaning to …

(A) far away

(B) dangerous

(D) uninteresting

35. In line 12 the phrase "the issue" refers to …

(A) what to do with the Americans living m Oregon

(B) claiming Alaska as part of the United States

(D) going to war with Britain

36. The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the early 1840’s for all the following reasons EXCEPT ...

(A) More people were living in Oregon at that time

(B) The expansionists made the situation a political issue

(D) Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time

37. The word "ardent" in line 19 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) Superficial

(B) Enthusiastic

(D) Moderate

38. The word "they" in line 23 refers to ...

(A) the Americans

(B) the British and the Americans

(D) the Democratic Party

39. It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas Hart Benton ...

(A) was a temperate man

(B) supported the occupation of Oregon by force

(D) proposed and approved the final boundary decision

40. The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of the following reasons EXCEPT …

(A) The dying fur trade in Oregon

(B) The attraction of the American market for goods

(D) The desire for a good fight

41. It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary settlement the United States …

(A) got the land that it had originally demanded

(B) got less land than it had originally demanded

(D) had no interest in the land involved in the disput

Passage 5

42. The word "constraints" in line 3 is closest in meaning to ....

(A) restrictions

(B) height

(D) speed

43. Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?

(A) It is a slow-moving glacier.

(B) One would expect glaciers in this part of the world.

(D) It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet.

44. In order to describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of …

(A) birth

(B) snowflakes

(D) Iceland

45. The phrase "this process" in line 15 refers to …

(A) air bubbles being trapped below

(B) snow and ice compressing the ice crystals

(D) melting of summer snow

46. The word "trapped" in line 14 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) enclosed

(B) hunted

(D) stranded

47. According to the passage, what is one of the differences between valley glaciers and ice sheets?

(A) Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers.

(B) While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all directions.

(D) Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets.

48. In line 21, what does "it" refer to?

(A) glacier

(B) ice

(D) critical thickness

49. The word "significantly" in line 22 is closest in meaning to …

(A) quickly

(B) naturally

(D) notably

50. According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is ...

(A) the critical thickness of the ice

(B) the amount of ice accumulated

(D) the weight of the ice

Section II: Structure and Written Expression

Cara Mendaftar Teaching Clinic 20

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